This post continues from False Myth #2

The separatists say it bluntly: we have another language so we are a nation. This statement doesn’t stand 3 seconds of analysis. If a language were equal to a nation, Switzerland would not exist, because there are four official languages. France – a model of a unitary and centralized state – would not exist either, because French citizens speak Breton, Italian, Basque, Alsatian and diverse variants of French (i.e.: the language d’Oc and the language d’Oil).

On the other hand, if a language is equal to a nation, an English, a north American, a Nigerian, an Australian, a Jamaican, and even myself! would be compatriots!
Or a Spaniard, a Bolivian, a Filipino and a Colombian would have the same nationality, while people from Aragon, Valladolid, Galicia or Valencia (regions of Spain) would be perfect strangers to each other, because some of them, apart from Spanish, speak a second language.

If a language was equal to nation, the Valons and the Flemish would not be Belgians, but rather French and Dutch. The Austrians would be Germans (yet another coincidence between Hitler and Sabino Arana).

Following this very same principle we would have to start the segregation of the territories of Catalonia, because in the 'Valley of Aran' they don't speak Catalan but Aranes, so they would then be another nation…

And maybe the Basque region should be divided in as many pieces as dialects exist. In fact, these variations were so different that the inventors needed to create “batua”, a limited and artificial unified version of the Basque language made without considering the richness of the sub-dialects.

In addition to all of the above, there are some Basque territories where Basque has never been spoken, like large zones of Alava, and the “Encartaciones” in Biscay. If a language was equal to nation, shouldn't we consider them as non-Basques?